A Nurse Is Caring For A Client In An Acute Manic State. What Is The Most Effective Nursing Action That (2024)

Medicine College

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Answer 1

The most effective nursing action for a client in an acute manic state would be to ensure their safety and stabilize their mood. When caring for a client in an acute manic state, the most effective nursing action that can be taken is to ensure safety for the client and others.

This can be achieved by providing a calm and supportive environment, using therapeutic communication techniques to redirect and deescalate the client's behavior, administering medications as prescribed, and monitoring the client's vital signs and fluid and electrolyte balance.

The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare team to develop a comprehensive care plan that addresses the client's physical, emotional, and psychological needs. This can be achieved by providing a structured, calm environment, closely monitoring their behavior, administering prescribed medications, and encouraging effective communication.

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Related Questions

a client has symptoms associated with salmonellosis. which data are relevant for the nurse to obtain from the client's history

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The relevant data for the nurse to obtain from the client's history includes recent consumption of raw or undercooked eggs or poultry, exposure to contaminated food or water, recent travel to high-risk areas, recent contact with animals, and any history of gastrointestinal illness.

Salmonellosis is a foodborne illness caused by the bacterium Salmonella. Obtaining a detailed history from the client can help the nurse identify potential sources of exposure and assess the severity of the illness.

Questions about the client's recent dietary habits, travel history, contact with animals, and history of gastrointestinal illness can provide valuable information to help determine the likelihood of salmonellosis.

Raw or undercooked eggs or poultry, contaminated food or water, travel to high-risk areas, and contact with animals are common risk factors for salmonellosis. This information can guide the nurse in providing appropriate care and education to the client and implementing necessary infection control measures.

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Nose and Sinus: What are the features of complete agenesis of the nose (arrhinia)

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The features of complete agenesis of the nose or arrhinia include the absence of the external nose, a malformed or absent nasal cavity, an abnormal facial appearance, breathing difficulties, olfactory impairment, and potential associated anomalies.

1. Absence of the external nose: In arrhinia, the external nose is completely absent. This is the most prominent and defining feature of this condition.

2. Malformed nasal cavity: In addition to the absence of the external nose, the nasal cavity may be malformed or completely absent.

3. Abnormal facial appearance: Due to the absence of the nose, the facial appearance of individuals with arrhinia is significantly different from what is considered normal.

4. Breathing difficulties: Since the nasal cavity is either absent or malformed, individuals with arrhinia often experience breathing difficulties and may require alternative methods for air passage, such as a tracheostomy.

5. Olfactory impairment: The sense of smell may be impaired or completely absent in individuals with arrhinia due to the absence of the olfactory structures in the nose.

6. Potential associated anomalies: Arrhinia may be associated with other congenital anomalies, such as craniofacial deformities or malformations of the eyes or ears.

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which change should the 39-year-old client scheduled for laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy be taught to expect after surgery?

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After a laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, the 39-year-old client can expect the following changes:

Pain and discomfort: The client may experience pain and discomfort at the surgical site, which is usually managed with pain medications.

Fatigue: The client may feel tired and have low energy levels due to the surgery and anesthesia.

Limited mobility: The client may have limited mobility due to the incisions and surgical site, which may take some time to heal.

vagin*l bleeding: The client may experience some vagin*l bleeding, which is normal after this type of surgery.

Emotional changes: The client may experience emotional changes due to the hormonal changes that occur after removal of the ovaries.

The client should be taught to report any signs of infection, such as fever, redness, or drainage from the incision site, and to follow the post-operative instructions provided by the healthcare team.

A 72 year old female has a history of hypertension and atherosclerosis. An echocardiogram reveals backflow of blood into the left ventricle. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Mitral regurgitation
b) Mitral stenosis
c) Aortic regurgitation
d) Aortic stenosis

Answers

A 72-year-old female with a history of hypertension and atherosclerosis presents with backflow of blood into the left ventricle, as revealed by an echocardiogram. The most likely diagnosis is a) Mitral regurgitation.

Mitral regurgitation occurs when the mitral valve, which is located between the left atrium and ventricle, does not close properly during systole (when the heart contracts). This leads to backflow of blood into the left atrium and ventricle, causing volume overload and potentially leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue.

Hypertension and atherosclerosis are both risk factors for mitral regurgitation, as they can cause changes in the structure and function of the mitral valve. Treatment for mitral regurgitation may include medications to manage symptoms, such as diuretics and ACE inhibitors, or surgical intervention to repair or replace the mitral valve. Therefore, option A is correct

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If the right temple is angled up the effect on the frame will be to
A. Lower the right side
B. Raise the right side
C. Loosen the right temple
D. Push the front away from the eye

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If the right temple is angled up, the effect on the frame will be to raise the right side. The correct answer is B.

In eyewear, the temple is the part that extends from the frame and goes over the ears to hold the glasses in place. When the right temple is angled up, it means that the angle between the right temple and the frame is increased, causing the right side of the frame to move upwards.

As a result, the frame will sit higher on the face and may not align properly with the eyes. This can cause discomfort and also affect the vision. Therefore, it is important to adjust the temple angle to ensure a proper fit and alignment of the frame. The correct answer is B.

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How should the nurse describe cervical mucus during ovulation? a. Blood-tinged b. Thin and watery c. Absent d. Abundant and elastic. d. Abundant and elastic.

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Cervical mucus during ovulation should be described by the nurse as d. Abundant and stretchy.

The cervical mucus changes during ovulation to become thin, clear, plentiful, and stretchy, with a texture resembling that of raw egg whites. The cervix creates this sort of mucus to aid sperm in passing through the cervix and reaching the egg for fertilization as a result of the body producing more oestrogen.

Because cervical mucus variations during the menstrual cycle can be a useful tool for women who are trying to get pregnant or using fertility awareness techniques, it is crucial for nurses to be knowledgeable about these changes.

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a nurse is caring for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (gerd). what history finding would the nurse expect to learn from this patient?

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Medical history is essential in diagnosing and managing GERD. By gathering information about the patient's symptoms, dietary habits, and risk factors, the nurse can work with the healthcare team to develop an effective treatment plan.

Patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) typically present with a history of heartburn, which is characterized by a burning sensation in the chest or throat. Other common symptoms include regurgitation, a bitter or sour taste in the mouth, difficulty swallowing, and a feeling of fullness in the stomach. Patients may also experience chest pain, especially after meals, and may complain of nausea and vomiting.The nurse should inquire about the patient's dietary habits, particularly their consumption of caffeine, alcohol, spicy foods, and fatty or fried foods. The nurse should also ask about the patient's smoking history and any medications they are taking, as certain drugs can contribute to GERD symptoms.In addition, the nurse should assess the patient for any risk factors that may increase their likelihood of developing GERD, such as obesity, hiatal hernia, and pregnancy. Patients who have a family history of GERD may also be at increased risk for the condition.

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azidothymidine, or azt, is a drug used in the treatment of hiv infection that exhibits a high degree of selective toxicity. t/f

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Azidothymidine, or azt, is a drug used in the treatment of hiv infection that exhibits a high degree of selective toxicity. - True

Antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection is provided by the specific drug known as azidothymidine (AZT). It has a high degree of selective toxicity, which enables it to target and prevent HIV replication without causing a great deal of damage to host cells which are present. The reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is crucial for the replication of HIV, is specifically inhibited by AZT in order to function.

Due to the reverse transcriptase enzyme's specificity for retroviruses like HIV and absence in human cells, the medication is specifically harmful to HIV. Instead of acting as a noncompetitive inhibitor, AZT acts as a competitive inhibitor, engaging in direct conflict with the virus to prevent it from attaching to the substance that causes sickness.

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When assessing a patient's tolerance to cyclobenzaprine (Amrix), a muscle relaxant medication, the nurse should ask the patient about any side effects or adverse reactions they may be experiencing.

Drowsiness, dry mouth, dizziness, and blurred vision are some of the most typical cyclobenzaprine side effects. As a result, the nurse might query the patient about:

Do you find it difficult to stay awake during the daytime or do you ever feel sleepy?Do you experience oral dryness or have any trouble speaking or swallowing?Are you experiencing any lightheadedness or dizziness when you stand up or move positions?Do you experience any vision issues, such as blurriness or difficulties seeing clearly?

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a nurse is providing teaching to the parent of a child who has cystic fibrosis and a prolapsed rectum. the nurse should identify that which of the following is a cause of this complication?

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The nurse should identify that constipation is a possible cause of prolapsed rectum complications in a child with cystic fibrosis. The nurse should teach the parent about proper bowel management strategies and encourage them to seek medical attention if their child experiences any gastrointestinal issues.

A nurse should identify that the cause of the prolapsed rectum in a child with cystic fibrosis is likely due to increased abdominal pressure from chronic coughing and straining during bowel movements. This increased pressure can lead to the rectal tissue weakening and prolapsing. The parent should be aware of this complication and work closely with healthcare providers to manage their child's symptoms effectively.

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the nurse is caring for an elderly client after hip replacement surgery. the client is distressed because he has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Answers

The nurse should assess the client's bowel sounds and abdominal distension, and notify the healthcare provider if there are any concerning findings.

As a nurse, it is important to assess the client's bowel sounds and abdominal distension to determine the severity of the situation. Absence of bowel sounds and significant abdominal distension could indicate a potential bowel obstruction, which requires immediate medical attention.

The nurse should also review the client's medications, diet, and mobility status as these factors can affect bowel movements. If there are no concerning findings, the nurse can implement non-pharmacological interventions such as encouraging ambulation, increasing fluid intake, and providing fiber-rich foods.

However, if there are concerning findings or if the client's distress persists, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

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the nurse is caring for an underweight adolescent girl with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. which clinical manifestation will the nurse expect in this client? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The common characteristics of girls with anorexia nervosa, are overestimation of body size and shape and reduced self-esteem, and low self-worth, the correct options are B and C.

Girls with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and believe that they are overweight despite being underweight. This overestimation of body size and shape may lead to the restriction of food intake in an attempt to lose weight.

Additionally, they may have reduced self-esteem and low self-worth, which can contribute to the development and maintenance of the disorder. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these common characteristics in order to provide appropriate care and support for the adolescent girl with anorexia nervosa, the correct options are B and C.

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The complete question is:

A nurse is caring for an underweight adolescent girl with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Which common characteristics of girls with this disorder should the nurse recognize when obtaining a health history and performing a physical assessment? Select all that apply.

A. Excessive appetite and cravings for high-calorie foods

B. Overestimation of body size and shape

C. Reduced self-esteem and low self-worth

D. Maintenance of the normal menstrual cycle

E. Absence of fear of gaining weight

which instructions would the nurse give to an adolescent to prevent sexually transmitted infections? hesi

Answers

An adolescent is a person who is going through the period of development between childhood and adulthood. This period, also called puberty, typically occurs during the ages of 10 to 19 years old and is characterized by significant physical, cognitive, and emotional changes.

As a nurse, the following instructions can be given to an adolescent to prevent sexually transmitted infections:

1. Practice abstinence: The most effective way to prevent sexually transmitted infections is to abstain from sexual activity.

2. Use condoms: If the adolescent chooses to engage in sexual activity, it is important to use condoms consistently and correctly. This can reduce the risk of contracting or spreading sexually transmitted infections.

3. Get vaccinated: Adolescents should receive the HPV vaccine to protect against human papillomavirus, which can cause cervical cancer and other types of cancer.

4. Limit the number of sexual partners: Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections. Encourage the adolescent to limit their sexual partners.

5. Get tested: Encourage the adolescent to get tested for sexually transmitted infections regularly, especially if they have had unprotected sex.

6. Open communication: Encourage the adolescent to communicate openly with their sexual partner about their sexual history and any potential risks.

Overall, education and open communication about safe sex practices are key in preventing sexually transmitted infections among adolescents.

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Which of the following are factors involving the airways that lead to an asthma attack? O A. swelling of the airways due to inflammation OB. excess mucus production C. bronchoconstriction OD, all of the above are correct which resistance to air flow. The drug in the rescue inhaler is a A. vasodilator, enhances B. bronchoconstrictor, decreases C. bronchodilator, increases D. bronchodilator; decreases

Answers

All of the options listed are factors involving the airways that lead to an asthma attack.

All of the options listed are factors involving the airways that lead to an asthma attack. Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by inflammation, mucus production, and bronchoconstriction, among other symptoms.

During an asthma attack, the airways become inflamed, swollen, and narrow, making it difficult for air to flow in and out of the lungs. Excess mucus production can also further narrow the airways, while bronchoconstriction causes the smooth muscles surrounding the airways to tighten, making them even narrower. These factors combined can lead to wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, and other symptoms of an asthma attack.

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a client recovering from a total gastrectomy has a low red blood cell count. which medication will the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client?

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The nurse would expect the client to be prescribed erythropoietin stimulating agents (ESA) medication to address the low red blood cell count after a total gastrectomy.

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When preparing instructions for a client who is being discharged after undergoing a barium enema, the nurse should include the following:

1. Drink plenty of fluids to help eliminate the barium from the body.
2. Expect to have white or light-colored stools for a few days.
3. Avoid constipation by eating high-fiber foods and drinking plenty of fluids.
4. Contact the healthcare provider if there is abdominal pain, fever, or rectal bleeding.
5. It is normal to feel bloated or have gas after the procedure.

All of these should be included in the teaching to ensure the client understands what to expect and how to care for themselves post-procedure.

When preparing instructions for a client who is being discharged after undergoing a barium enema, the nurse should include the following information:

1. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to help flush out the barium and prevent constipation.
2. Explain the importance of having regular bowel movements to expel the barium.
3. Inform the client that their stools may appear white or light-colored for a few days due to the barium.
4. Advise the client to monitor for any signs of complications, such as abdominal pain, fever, or difficulty passing stools, and to seek medical attention if these symptoms occur.
5. Provide information on any follow-up appointments or additional tests that may be necessary.

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the nurse is performing an admission assessment of a patient who has a history of asthma. the nurse should be aware that the most common signs of asthma are what?

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The nurse should be aware that the most common signs of asthma are wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and coughing.

These symptoms occur due to inflammation and narrowing of the airways in the lungs, which makes it difficult for the patient to breathe. Other signs and symptoms of asthma may include rapid breathing, difficulty speaking, retractions (pulling in of the skin between the ribs and around the neck), and use of accessory muscles to breathe.

Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It can be triggered by a variety of factors, including allergens, exercise, cold air, and stress. Treatment for asthma typically involves the use of medications such as bronchodilators and corticosteroids, as well as avoiding triggers and making lifestyle modifications to manage the condition.

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the nurse caring for a client with cystic fibrosis administers pancreatic enzymes on what schedule?

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The nurse's primary assessment as a result of this noncompliance is the option C) malnutrition in the patient because of lack of pancreatic enzymes.

The exocrine glands are dysfunctional in CF (cystic fibrosis), which results in the production of thick, sticky mucus

Patients with CF must take pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals and snacks to prevent this malabsorption. Regularly taking these enzymes can prevent malnutrition, which can cause weakness, exhaustion, weight loss, and inability to grow in children.

Therefore, if the cystic fibrosis patient is not taking her pancreatic enzymes, malnutrition will be the main assessment finding as a result of this noncompliance.

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Complete question - The nurse is caring for a patient with cystic fibrosis who has recently not been taking her pancreatic enzymes recently. What is the primary assessment finding the nurse will see as a result of this noncompliance?

A) Constipation

B) Diarrhea

C) Malnutrition

D) Abdominal pain

which of the following memory stores was affected the most in patient hm? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. explicit memory c. implicit memory d. phonological buffer

Answers

Patient HM suffered from profound anterograde amnesia, which impaired his ability to form new long-term declarative (explicit) memories. Therefore, the answer is b) explicit memory. The visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer, and implicit memory were not specifically affected in his case.

sher reads the label on the cream he is using to treat his itchy rash and notices that it contains benzocaine. what is the action of benzocaine?

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The action of benzocaine is that it is a local anesthetic, if it is being used to treat the itchy rash on the skin.

The primary function of a local anesthetic is to reduce the pain and provide a relieving effect. This is what performed by Benzocaine. Hereby, it works as a painkiller by numbing the effect of the pain. It is usually sold under a brand name called Orajel.

Local anesthetics can be used to treat various conditions like hemorrhoids, sore throats, sunburns, vagin*l or rectal irritation, and several other sources of minor pain on the body's surface. Local anesthesia is often inserted in the body before a surgery to numb the effect caused.

Among others, benzocaine works by blocking the nerve signals causing pain to the body and provides relief.

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The action of benzocaine is that it is a local anesthetic, if it is being used to treat the itchy rash on the skin.

The primary function of a local anesthetic is to reduce the pain and provide a relieving effect. This is what performed by Benzocaine. Hereby, it works as a painkiller by numbing the effect of the pain. It is usually sold under a brand name called Orajel.

Local anesthetics can be used to treat various conditions like hemorrhoids, sore throats, sunburns, vagin*l or rectal irritation, and several other sources of minor pain on the body's surface. Local anesthesia is often inserted in the body before a surgery to numb the effect caused.

Among others, benzocaine works by blocking the nerve signals causing pain to the body and provides relief.

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the nurse is caring for a client with diarrhea. for which finding will the nurse suspect the diarrhea is caused by pancreatic insufficiency?

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If a client with diarrhoea has frequent diarrhoea that does not improve with over-the-counter medications, greasy, bulky stools that are challenging to flush, abdominal pain and bloating after meals, unexplained weight loss, gas, and foul-smelling stools.

Which sign in a gastroenteritis patient suggests dehydration?

Summary of the evidence. According to a comprehensive study, the indicators most useful for identifying 5% or worse dehydration in a kid with gastroenteritis include altered respiratory pattern, aberrant skin turgor, and delayed capillary refill time.

What is a diarrheal nursing diagnosis?

The definition of diarrhoea is an increase in the frequency, water content, and volume of bowel movements. It could result from a number of things, like malabsorption problems.

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about how many ml will the nurse record as having been replaced for a client with dehydration initially weighed 142 lb (64.5 kg) and now weighs 156 lb (70.9 kg) after 2 days of rehydration therapy?

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The nurse will record as having been replaced for a client with dehydration who initially weighed 142 lb (64.5 kg) and now weighs 156 lb (70.9 kg) after 2 days of rehydration therapy is approximately 9,600 ml.

To calculate the number of fluids replaced for the client, we need to find the difference between their initial weight and final weight after rehydration therapy.

Initial weight: 142 lb (64.5 kg)

Final weight: 156 lb (70.9 kg)

Weight difference: 156 lb - 142 lb = 14 lb (6.4 kg)

It is generally recommended to replace 1.5 times the weight lost in fluids during dehydration. Therefore, the amount of fluids replaced for this client would be:

Fluids replaced = 1.5 x weight difference

Fluids replaced = 1.5 x 6.4 kg

Fluids replaced = 9.6 kg

To convert kg to ml, we need to know the type of fluid that was used for rehydration therapy. Different fluids have different densities and thus different conversion factors. As an example, assuming the fluid used was normal saline (0.9% NaCl):

1 kg of normal saline = 1000 ml

9.6 kg of normal saline = 9600 ml

Therefore, the nurse would record approximately 9600 ml of normal saline as having been replaced for the client with dehydration.

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in structural family therapy, minuchin used this technique to help family members see a problem as a family problem rather than a problem of the identified patient.

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The technique that Minuchin used in Structural Family Therapy to help family members see a problem as a family problem rather than a problem of the identified patient is called "reframing".

Reframing is a technique used to change the way a problem is defined or viewed. In Structural Family Therapy, the therapist may reframe the problem in a way that emphasizes how it is a result of the family's interactions and dynamics, rather than solely the responsibility of the identified patient.

For example, if a family is struggling with a child's behavioral issues, the therapist may reframe the problem as a family issue by pointing out how the parents' communication and disciplinary strategies may be contributing to the child's behavior.

Overall, reframing is the technique that Minuchin used in Structural Family Therapy to help family members see a problem as a family problem rather than a problem of the identified patient.

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a nurse writes a nursing diagnosis and includes information about the etiology along with manifestations associated with that etiology. the nurse is demonstrating an understanding of:

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The nurse is demonstrating an understanding of the nursing process, specifically the diagnostic phase which involves identifying the client's health problems, analyzing the data collected, and formulating a nursing diagnosis. The nursing diagnosis includes identifying the etiology (cause or contributing factors) of the problem and the associated manifestations (signs and symptoms) exhibited by the client.

This process helps the nurse to develop appropriate interventions to address the client's needs and achieve desired outcomes. The nurse is demonstrating an understanding of the components of a nursing diagnosis. A nursing diagnosis typically includes a problem statement, etiology, and manifestations. The etiology refers to the underlying cause or contributing factors of the patient's condition, while the manifestations are the signs and symptoms associated with that etiology. By including both in the nursing diagnosis, the nurse is effectively addressing the patient's needs and planning appropriate interventions.

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A client with a newly placed prosthetic heart valve will be maintained on long-term anticoagulant therapy. Which medication does the nurse anticipate being used for this purpose?
1. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
2. Dalteparin (Fragmin)
3. Heparin
4. Warfarin (Coumadin)

Answers

The nurse anticipates that the client with a newly placed prosthetic heart valve will be maintained on long-term anticoagulant therapy with Warfarin (Coumadin). Option 4 is correct.

Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver, which are dependent on vitamin K. This medication is commonly used for long-term anticoagulation therapy in clients with prosthetic heart valves to prevent the formation of blood clots, which could lead to serious complications such as stroke, heart attack, or pulmonary embolism.

The client's dosage will be monitored regularly with blood tests, such as the international normalized ratio (INR) and prothrombin time (PT), to ensure that the medication is effective and to prevent bleeding complications. Hence Option 4 is correct.

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which points about nursing care and nursing practice have been accurately stated? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. nursing theories help describe, explain, predict, and/or prescribe nursing care measures. expertise in nursing is a result of clinical experience, and substantial knowledge is not required. the scientific work used in developing theories expands the scientific knowledge of the profession. nursing theories offer inadequate rationales for how and why nurses perform specific interventions and for predicting client behaviors and outcomes. the expertise required to interpret clinical situations and make clinical judgments is the essence of nursing care and the basis for advancing nursing practice and nursing science.

Answers

The following points regarding nursing practice and care have been accurately stated: Nursing theories assist in describing, explaining, predicting, and/or prescribing measures for nursing care.

The profession's scientific knowledge is expanded by the scientific work used to develop theories.The essence of nursing care and the foundation for advancing nursing practice and nursing science are the skills required to interpret clinical situations and make clinical judgments.

Option A , B and D are correct.

What is nursing care?

The services and assistance that are provided to people of all ages, families, groups, and communities in a variety of healthcare settings by qualified and credentialed healthcare professionals known as nurses are referred to as "nursing care."

The assertion that "substantial knowledge is not required" is incorrect. "Expertise in nursing is a result of clinical experience." Significant information and continuous schooling are fundamental for building and keeping up with nursing aptitude.

The explanation that "nursing hypotheses offer lacking reasonings for how and why medical attendants perform explicit mediations and for anticipating client ways of behaving and results" is additionally mistaken.

Question incomplete:

which points about nursing care and nursing practice have been accurately stated? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. nursing theories help describe, explain, predict, and/or prescribe nursing care measures. expertise in nursing is a result of clinical experience, and substantial knowledge is not required.

B. the scientific work used in developing theories expands the scientific knowledge of the profession.

C. nursing theories offer inadequate rationales for how and why nurses perform specific interventions and for predicting client behaviors and outcomes.

D. the expertise required to interpret clinical situations and make clinical judgments is the essence of nursing care and the basis for advancing nursing practice and nursing science.

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which ethical obligation applies when a nurse sees a peer divert a narcotic, compared with the ethical obligation when the nurse observes a peer who is under the influence of alcohol?

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The ethical obligation when a nurse sees a peer divert a narcotic is to report it to appropriate authorities, while the ethical obligation when a nurse observes a peer who is under the influence of alcohol is to intervene and ensure patient safety.

In the first scenario, the nurse has a duty to report any suspected diversion of narcotics to prevent harm to patients and ensure accountability. On the other hand, when a nurse observes a peer under the influence of alcohol, their primary responsibility is to ensure patient safety by intervening and reporting the incident to management, as the peer's behavior can affect their ability to provide safe and effective care.

Both scenarios highlight the importance of upholding ethical principles in nursing practice and maintaining patient-centered care.

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The nurse researcher is discussing mixed-methods research to a group of prelicensure nursing students. Which statement best describes a mixed-methods approach?
A. Mixed-methods studies allow researchers to capitalize on the weaknesses of numbers and words to answer similar components of a research question.
B. Mixed-methods research combines quantitative and qualitative research methods to answer a research question with a pragmatic focus.
C. Mixed-methods research only allows the weaknesses of quantitative and qualitative methods to interact in a complementary way with the other.
D. Mixed-methods studies capitalize on the strengths of numbers and words to answer similar components or stages of a research question.

Answers

The best statement that describes a mixed-methods approach is B. This approach combines quantitative and qualitative research methods to answer a research question with a pragmatic focus.

A mixed-methods approach allows researchers to gather and analyze both quantitative and qualitative data to provide a more comprehensive and detailed explanation of the research question. It provides the opportunity to complement each other's weaknesses and strengths, leading to a more accurate and complete understanding of the topic being studied.
Mixed-methods research is an approach that integrates both quantitative (numerical) and qualitative (non-numerical) data to address a research question. This method aims to combine the strengths of both research methods and provides a comprehensive understanding of the research problem. It allows for a more pragmatic focus on addressing the research question by taking advantage of the strengths of both methods while compensating for their individual weaknesses.

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The most common cause of large bowel obstruction is

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The most common cause of large bowel obstruction is colorectal cancer. It can also be caused by diverticular disease, volvulus, and inflammatory bowel disease.

Colorectal cancer is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction, accounting for up to 70% of cases. The obstruction is caused by the tumor's growth in the colon, which narrows the bowel's lumen and impedes the passage of feces. Diverticular disease, volvulus, and inflammatory bowel disease are other causes of large bowel obstruction. Diverticular disease occurs when pouches form in the colon's lining, causing a blockage. Volvulus is a condition in which the colon twists, leading to an obstruction. Inflammatory bowel disease causes inflammation and narrowing of the bowel. Prompt diagnosis and treatment of large bowel obstruction are crucial to prevent serious complications like bowel perforation and sepsis.

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The most common cause of large bowel obstruction is________.

during a nonstress test, when monitoring the fetal heart rate, the nurse notes that when the expectant mother reports fetal movement, the heart rate increases 15 beats or more above the baseline. this occurs about 4 or 5 times during the testing period. the nurse interprets this as:

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The nurse would interpret these findings as a normal, reassuring result of the nonstress test.

When a fetal heart rate increases by 15 beats or more above the baseline in response to fetal movement, it is known as an "acceleration" and is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. During a nonstress test, the goal is to see at least two accelerations in a 20-minute period. However, if the nurse observed 4 or 5 accelerations during the testing period, this would indicate a very reassuring result and suggest that the fetus is in good condition. Therefore, the nurse would interpret these findings as a normal, reassuring result of the nonstress test.

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